Post by Lauren on Sept 14, 2006 20:38:58 GMT -5
1. A patient presents to the ER with a ruptured bowel. This is a result of a previously diagnosed condition known as Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. Which one of the following statements about this patient's condition is NOT true? B. It is a defect in Type III Collagen
a. he has a defect in the synthesis of mRNA encoding type III collagen
b. he has a defect in the translation of the mRNA encoding type IV collagen
c. he has defective reticular fiber collagen
d. he is at risk for aortic rupture
e. he has a defect in the translation of mRNA for type III collagen
2. Which one of the following statements about hyaluronic acid is not true? C. Hyaluronic acid is not a proteoglycan.
a. It does not possess a core protein
b. It is a glycosaminoglycan
c. it is a proteoglycan with a shape resembling a bottle brush
d. It is a large molecule (longer than 15um)
3. Which one of the following statements regarding osteonectin is NOT true? C. Osteonectin binds Type I collagen—Type II is in cartilage
a. It is present in bone matrix
b. It is a glycoprotein
c. It binds to type II collagen
d. It influences calcification of bone
4. Which of the following statements about scurvy is not true?
E. Scurvy is caused by unstable triple helices and thus, unstable collagen fibrils.
a. A symptom is bleeding gums
b. It is a condition caused by poorly hydroxylated collagen
c. It is often associated with a defective periodontal ligament
d. It is alleviated by eating citrus fruits
e. The patient may have stable triple helices of collagen. but an unstable collagen fibril.
5. T/F: A glycoprotein that organizes elastin into a fiber is Fibrillin. T.
6. T/F: An amorphous structural protein that stretches and recoils is Elastin. T.
7. (Fill in the blank) _fibronectin________ is a glycoprotein across which fibroblasts migrate during wound healing.
8. A cross shaped glycoprotein that links Type IV collagen with laminin in the lamina densa is ___Entactin____.
9. Type _III__ collagen makes up a framework for the spleen.
10. Type I collagen is synthesized by all but which of the following? Chondroblasts. Chondroblasts make Type II collagen only.
a. Fibroblasts
b. odontoblast
c. osteoblasts
d. chondroblast
11. Type III collagen is found in all but which of the following structures? TYPO—ITS found in all of them below.
a. Lymph nodes
b. liver
c. spleen
d. endoneurium
e. uterus
12. The functions of type IV collagen are all of the following except: D. Type IV collagen is not an insulator
a. To provide support to the ECM
b. To act as a scaffold for cell migration
c. To bind to laminin via entactin in the lamina densa
d. To insulate neurons from ap's travelling along nodes of
ranvier.
13. ___aggrecan__________ is a proteoglycan responsible for the 'bubbling' after a subcutaneous tissue injection such as after a Tb test.
14. The following characteristics of the fibronectin receptor are true except:D. Fibronectin receptor binds to integrin. Integrin then binds to actin.
a. It contains disulfide bonds
b. It functions to bind extracellular moieties to the intracellular cytoskeleton
c. It binds to Integrin
d. It binds to Actin
15. All of the following steps of collagen synthesis occur intracellularly except: B. hydroxyhistidine is not a component in collagen synthesis. It should be “glycosylation of specific hydroxylysine”…
a. hydroxylation of proline and lysine
b. glycosolation of specific hydroxyhistidine
c. procollagen formation
d. addition of carbohydrates
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
16. The following display a 67nm periocity except: Type IV
a. Type I collagen
b. Type II collagen
c. Type III collagen
d. Type IV collagen
17. Marfan syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: C. The defect is in fibrillin
a. It is associated with an increased risk of aortic rupture
b. It is a genetic disorder of a defect on chromosome 15
c. The defect results in poorly formed elastin
d. The defect results in poorly formed fibrillin
e. The defect results in poorly formed elastic fibers.
18. All of the following are primary mediators of an anaphylactic shock released by mast cells except: D
a. histamine
b. neutral proteases
c. aryl sulfatase
d. bradykinin
e. all of the above are primary mediators.
19. All of the following cells are transient in connective tissue except: D. Mast cells.
a. Macrophages
b. Basophils
c. Monocytes
d. Mast cells
e. neutrophils
20. Multilocular fat carries out all the following functions except: B. Multilocular fat does not have RER.
a. To increase heat production
b. To synthesize specific thermogenic proteins in the RER
c. To store triglyceride
d. To respond to hormone sensitive lipase
e. Brown fat carries out all the above functions
21. Connective tissue proper includes all the following categories except: E. This falls under embryonic connective tissue.
a. Loose areolar connective tissue
b. Dense irregular connective tissue
c. Reticular tissue
d. Adipose tissue
e. Mucous connective tissue
22. All of the following are true of a patient with hypercellular obesity except. B.
a. The patient has an overabundance of adipocytes
b. The patient has a defect in the leptin hormone
c. The patient has more severe obesity than another patient with hypertrophic obesity
d. All of the above are true.
23. All of the following are functions of connective tissue except: E. This is a function of the immune system (macrophages specifically)
a. to provide structural support
b. to serve as a medium for exchange
c. To aid in the defense and protection of the body
d. to form a site for the storage of fat
e. To phagocytose foreign particles and increase antigen presentation to the lymph system
24. The following are categories of glycosaminoglycans except: D. Laminin
a. hyaluronic acid
b. keratan sulfate
c. Dermatan sulfate
d. Laminin
e. Heparin
25. (T/F) The two amino sugars found in glycosaminoglycans are N-acetylglucosamine of N-acetylgalactosamine. T
26. The following are true statements about epithelia except: D.
a. Epithelia are avascular
b. Epithelial cells receive nourishment through diffusion of molecules through the basal lamina
c. Epithelia is classified by shape and number of cells.
d. All of the above are true.
e. None of the above are true.
27. Simple squamous epithelium can be found in all the following except: D. This would be connective tissue. SS epithelium is on pleural linings, lumens, and the peritoneum.
a. the lumen of the aorta
b. the parietal pleura
c. the peritoneum
d. the fibrous pericardium
e. it can be found in all the above.
28. The following are true about a tight junction except:C. It does not allow any movement
a. it is also referred to as the zonula occludens
b. it is found around the entire apical perimeter
c. it alows movement of certain molecules into the intercellular space.
d. it is analagous to the fascia occludens
e. all the above are true
29. The following are true about the zonula adherens except:
a. it is also called the intermediate junction
b. it is also called the belt desmosome
c. it is found around the entire perimeter of an epithelial cell
d. It includes a proteoglycan called E-cadherin
e. It is analagous to components in the intercalated disks of cardiac muscle.
30. The following are true about desmosomes except: D.
a. it is characterized by desmoplakins
b. It includes transmembrane linker glycoproteins
c. tonofilaments loop in and out of a plaque, which constructs it
d. all of the above are true
e. all of the above are false about desmosomes.
31. All of the following are true about gap junctions except: C. Connexins can open and close in response to conditions.
a. Their function is to couple cells metabolically and electrically.
b. Channels are known as connexins
c. Connexins are fixed in shape and function
d. Connexins are precisely aligned
e. Connexins transport molecules between 1200-2000 daltons.
32. All of the following are true about the basal lamina except: A. It is only visible in EM
a. It is visible at 20X light microscope
b. It is composed of Type IV collagen
c. It appears banded at 67 nm
d. It has two zones, lamina lucida and lamina densa
e. The basal lamina and reticular lamina make the basement membrane
33. The following are true of microvilli except. E.
a. they increase surface area
b. a glycocalyx is present on their surface
c. They contain actin filaments
d. If they are long, they are called stereocilia
e. all of the above are correct.
34. All of the following regarding cilia are correct except: C. It is Dynein ATPase.
a. They are 5-10 nm in length
b. Their axoneme is composed of a 9+2 configuration
c. kinein ATPase fuels active movement of cilia
d. Nexin maintains the shape of cilia
e. ATP is required for movement of cilia
35. (T/F) An exocrine gland secretes into a hair follicle. T.
36. (T/F) A paracrine gland secretes into a duct. F. Into an extracellular space.
37. (T/F) One multicellular gland cannot secrete more than one substance. False
38. All of the following are true statements except: D.
a. Mucus is viscous and protects and lubricates surfaces.
b. Serous secretions are watery and rich in enzymes
c. mixed secretions contain mucus and serous secretions
d. Mixed secretion can only happen through holocrine secreation
e. all of the above are false statements
39. Which of the following should be a differential diagnosis of a male patient with sterility, chronic sinusitis, chronic respiratory distress, and sinus inversus of the viscera? B.
a. exhaustion
b. Kartegener’s syndrome
c. Marfan syndrome
d. Erythrokeratodermia variabilis
e. Acute lymhoblastic leukemia
40. Which of the following statements of glands is true? D.
a. Exocrine glands lack ducts
b. Simple glands have ducts that branch
c. Endocrine glands secrete into ducts
d. Serous secretions are watery
e. Holocrine glands release contents by exocytosis
41. Which of the following statements of epithelia is not true? E. They have a small amount of intercellular substance.
a. They are polarized
b. They are avascular
c. They are separated from underlying connective tissue by a basal lamina
d. They line the lumen of blood vessels
e. They contain a large amount of intercellular substance.\
42. Which of the following statements about stratified squamous epithelium is not true? B.
a. The surface layer of cells may be keratinized
b. The cells in the most superficial layer are cuboidal
c. It is supported by a basal lamina
d. Its cells possess desmosomes
43. Cells in exocrine glands use all of the following methods of secretion except: B. Paracrine is secretion into extracellular space.
a. Apocrine
b. Paracrine
c. Merocrine
d. Holocrine
e. All of the above
Match the description with the corresponding letter: (44-47)
f. Microvilli.
g. Desmosomes
h. Terminal web
i. Zonula occludens
44. contains a core of actin filaments. F
45. is associated with keratin tonofilaments. G
46. prevents movement of materials from the lumen into the intercellular space. I
47. a zone in the apical cytoplasm containing more than one type of filament.. H
48. Which of the following statements regarding osteoclasts is true? C.
a. They are enucleated cells
b. They produce collagen
c. They occupy howships lacunae
d. They are derived from osteoprogenitor cells
49. Which of the following statements about the periosteum is false? E. It is an osteoprogenitor layer.
a. It contains two zones, the cellular and fibrous layers.
b. It is noncalcified connective tissue
c. It is breached during endochondral bone formation
d. It distributes blood vessels to bone
e. It has an osteogenic layer
50. All of the following are derived from osteoprogenitor origin except: E. Osteoclasts and chondrocytes are not of osteoprogenitor origin.
a. Osteoclasts
b. Osteoblasts
c. Osteocytes
d. Chondrocytes
e. More than one of the above is not of osteoprogenitor origin.
51. All of the following can be found in the matrix of hyaline cartilage except: D. Chondrocytes, by definition, are not in the matrix.
a. Proteoglycan aggregates
b. Chondronectin
c. Type II collagen
d. Chondrocytes
e. All of the above can be found in hyaline cartilage
52. The cells responsible for secreting matrix into forming cartilage are: A.
a. Chondroblasts
b. Chondrocytes
c. Chondrogenic cells in perichondrium
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
53. T/F: Interstitial growth results from cell division of preexisting chondrocytes. T.
54. T/F: Appositional growth results from differentiation of chondrogenic cells in the perichondrium. T.
55. T/F: Appositional growth results in the formation of chondrocytes. T.
56. T/F: Appostional growth results in the formation of chondroblasts. T.
57. T/F: Osteoprogenitor cells differentiate into osteoblasts at low oxygen tension. F. Osteoprogenitor cells become chondrogenic under low oxygen.
58. T/F: Osteoblasts have a well-developed ER and golgi complex when active. T.
59. T/F: Osteocytes communicate via gap junctions. T.
60. T/F: Osteocytes are nourished by nutrients and metabolites in the canaliculi. T.
61. All of the following are true of osteoclasts except: C.
a. Their cytoplasm is acidophilic
b. They are located in howship’s lacunae
c. They have parathyroid hormone receptors
d. They have calcitonin receptors
e. They excrete acid into the bony matrix.
62. All of the following are true of osteoblasts except: C.
a. They make type I collagen
b. They have parathyroid hormone receptors
c. They have calcitonin receptors
d. They secrete alkaline phosphatase
e. They secrete osteocalcin
63-66. Fill in the blank:
Osteoclasts are large, motile, multinucleated cells that serve to break down existing bone. Upon activation, one can traditionally identify 4 zones. The ___63. Ruffled____ border is the site at which active bone resorption is occurring. The __64. Clear____ zone is what surrounds this site of active resorption. The vesicular zone secretes metalloproteinases such as ___65. Collagenase________ into the matrix. The basal zone is the portion of the cell that contains the _____66. Organelles__________.
67. All of the following are true of primary bone except: TYPO: Sorry—All of these are true.
a. It has a low mineral content
b. It is the first bone produced in fetal development
c. It has many osteocytes and large collagen bundles
d. It is remodeled
e. It is found in adults
68. All of the following are true of Haversian systems except: E
a. they run parallel to the long axis of the diaphysis
b. they carry blood vessels, nerves, and loose connective tissue
c. They are surrounded often by a cementing substance
d. They are interconnected by volkmann’s canals
e. All of the above are true.
69. (T/F) Interstitial lamellae are irregularly shaped lamellae located between Howship’s lacunae. F. Interstitial lamellae are found between haversian systems.
70. (T/F): Outer circumferential lamellae are located at the external surface of the diaphysis. T.
71. (T/F): Inner circumferential lamellae are located at the internal surfaces of the diaphysis. T.
72. Which of the following is not an event of intramembranous bone formation: F.
a. Mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts
b. osteoblasts begin secreting osteoid
c. osteoblasts are trapped in their own matrix.
d. The periosteum and endosteum develop from portionso fthe mesenchymal layer
e. Mesenchymal cells divide to make osteoprogenitor cells within the periosteum.
f. The periosteum ossifys.
73. Endochondral bone formation is the process by which: E. A and D are correct, maybe C.
a. long bones are formed
b. spongy bone is formed
c. Ron Jeremy makes a living
d. hyaline cartilage becomes a model for the bone to develop
e. more than one of the above is correct
74. Arrange the events of endochondral bone formation in sequence: C.
1. Chondrocytes within the core of the cartilaginous model hypertrophy
2. Osteoblasts elaborate the subperiosteal bone collar
3. vascularization of the perichondrium occurs
4. The bone collar becomes thicker and elongates toward the epiphysis.
5. Osteoclasts create perforations in the bone which permit a periostel bud to enter spaces in the cartilaginous model.
A. 1,3,4,5,2.
B. 1,2,3,4,5
C. 3,2, 1, 4, 5
D. 5,3,2, 1, 4
75. The following are zones of epiphyseal plates except: E. This is a zone of osteoclast activity.
a. zone of reserve
b. zone of proliferation
c. zone of hypertrophy and maturation
d. zone of calcification
e. clear zone
76. (T/F) The healed site of a long bone fracture is stronger than before it was broken. T.
77. Which of the following statements regarding bone is not true? E.
a. bone matrix contains Type I collagen
b. Sharpey’s fibers attach the periosteum to bone
c. Haversian canals carry the neurovascular bundle
d. Bone growth occurs via interstitial growth in the skull
e. Bone resorption reverses osteoporosis.
78. All of the following are connective tissue investments of muscle except: D.
a. epimysium
b. perimysium
c. endomysium
d. dense regular connective tissue
e. elastin
79. Which of the following types of muscle fibers can be found in a single muscle? E. Muscles can contain one, two, or all 3 of the fibers.
a. red
b. white
c. intermediate
d. all of the above
e. more than one of the above
80. The following are properly associated except: D.
a. I bands: light stain
b. A bands: dark stain
c. 2010: rocks
d. Z band: T tubules
e. Myosin: Titin
81. The function of a sarcomere is to: B.
a. sequester Calcium
b. contraction of a muscle
c. releasing calcium
d. secreting Ach
e. secreting Acetylcholinesterase
82. All of the following are functions of the sarcoplasmic reticulum except: D.
a. Storage/Release of Calcium
b. encircle myofibrils
c. forms the terminal cisternae
d. all of the above are functions of the SR
e. none of the above are functions of the SR
83. The regenerative cells of muscle tissue are: B.
a. myofibrils
b. satellite cells
c. myomeres
d. Schwann cells
e. H cells
84. Thin filaments are composed of all the following except: E.
a. F-actin
b. Tropomyosin
c. Troponin
d. Nebulin
e. all of the above are components of a thin filament
85. Thick filaments are composed of all the following except: B. Myomesin links more than one thick filament together.
a. myosin
b. myomesin
c. titin
d. C protein
e. all the above are components of thick filaments
86. Arrange the following events of muscle contraction in order: A.
1. The bond between myosin and actin is broken when ATP attaches to the S1 fragment.
2. The release of ADP causes a shift in myosin, so the thin filament is pulled toward the sarcomere center.
3. The conformation of the S1 is altered by the release of inorganic phosphate and the strength between actin and myosin is increased.
4. ATP hydrolysis results in the formation of a weak bond between S1 and the active site of myosin
a. 3,2,1,4
b. 3,1,2,4
c. 4,1,2,3
d. 4,2,1,3
e. 4,1,3,2
87. Which of the following elements binds calcium? C.
a. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
b. Tropomyosin
c. Troponin
d. Active sites on actin
88. Each smooth muscle cell. C.
a. has triads associated with contraction
b. has diads associated with its contraction
c. possesses a single, centrally localized nucleul
d. is characterized by the absence of sarcolemmal vesicles
89. Thick filaments are anchored to Z disks by: C.
a. C protein
b. nebulin
c. titin
d. myomesin
e. Alpha-actinin
90. Neural crest cells give rise to which of the following? C.
a. dorsal horns of spinal cord
b. adrenal cortex
c. sympathetic ganglia
d. preganglionic autonomic nerves
91. Somata possess which of the following structures? E.
a. microtubules
b. neurofilaments
c. nissl bodies
d. mitochondria
e. all of the above
92. Which of the following statements aobut the perineurium is false? C.
a. It is a fascia surroundin g many nerve fibers
b. It is composed of cells connected with tight junctions
c. It is composed of cells connected with gap junctions
d. It is composed of cells joined by zonulae occludentes.
93. Name the cell responsible for myelination in the PNS:____B_________
a. astrocytes
b. Schwann cells
c. oligodendrocytes
d. microglia
e. ependymal
94. Name the cell responsible for myelination in the CNS:__C_______
a. astrocytes
b. Schwann cells
c. oligodendrocytes
d. microglia
e. ependymal
95. Which one of the following is not properly associated: E. Protoplasmic astrocytes have low GFAP levels.
a. protoplasmic astrocytes: gray matter
b. fibrous astrocytes: white matter
c. protoplasmic astrocytes: blood brain barrier
d. fibrous astrocytes: high GFAP
e. protoplasmic astrocytes: high GFAP
96. Which of the following is not true of oligodendrocytes:D. They can myelinate multiple axons.
a. They exist symbiotically with neurons
b. They are located in both gray and white matter
c. They have only a few, short processes
d. They produce myelin for only one axon
e. They are necessary for survival of the neuron
97. Which of the following is true of microglia: E. C and D are both correct.
a. they are of mesenchymal origin
b. they are derived from neural crest cells
c. they are derived from bone marrow
d. They are phagocytic
e. More than one of the above is true
98. Regarding neurotransmitters, which of the following is not properly associated: E. Aspartate is excitatory
a. Acetyl Choline: Myoneural junctions
b. Norepinephrine: Postganglionic sympathetic synapses
c. GABA: Huntington’s chorea
d. Dopamine: Parkinson’s disease
e. Aspartate: Inhibitory
99. The most common type of primary brain tumor is: A.
a. astrocytoma
b. glioblastoma
c. oligodendroglioma
d. meningioma
e. lymphoma
100. Which of the following is correct regarding CSF: B.
a. choroid plexus:secretion::ependymal cells:absorption
b. choroid plexus:secretion::arachnoid villi: absorption
c. CSF contains high levels of protein for energy
d. CSF has low sodium, potassium, and chloride levels
e. It is transported to the lumbosacral region for resorption.
a. he has a defect in the synthesis of mRNA encoding type III collagen
b. he has a defect in the translation of the mRNA encoding type IV collagen
c. he has defective reticular fiber collagen
d. he is at risk for aortic rupture
e. he has a defect in the translation of mRNA for type III collagen
2. Which one of the following statements about hyaluronic acid is not true? C. Hyaluronic acid is not a proteoglycan.
a. It does not possess a core protein
b. It is a glycosaminoglycan
c. it is a proteoglycan with a shape resembling a bottle brush
d. It is a large molecule (longer than 15um)
3. Which one of the following statements regarding osteonectin is NOT true? C. Osteonectin binds Type I collagen—Type II is in cartilage
a. It is present in bone matrix
b. It is a glycoprotein
c. It binds to type II collagen
d. It influences calcification of bone
4. Which of the following statements about scurvy is not true?
E. Scurvy is caused by unstable triple helices and thus, unstable collagen fibrils.
a. A symptom is bleeding gums
b. It is a condition caused by poorly hydroxylated collagen
c. It is often associated with a defective periodontal ligament
d. It is alleviated by eating citrus fruits
e. The patient may have stable triple helices of collagen. but an unstable collagen fibril.
5. T/F: A glycoprotein that organizes elastin into a fiber is Fibrillin. T.
6. T/F: An amorphous structural protein that stretches and recoils is Elastin. T.
7. (Fill in the blank) _fibronectin________ is a glycoprotein across which fibroblasts migrate during wound healing.
8. A cross shaped glycoprotein that links Type IV collagen with laminin in the lamina densa is ___Entactin____.
9. Type _III__ collagen makes up a framework for the spleen.
10. Type I collagen is synthesized by all but which of the following? Chondroblasts. Chondroblasts make Type II collagen only.
a. Fibroblasts
b. odontoblast
c. osteoblasts
d. chondroblast
11. Type III collagen is found in all but which of the following structures? TYPO—ITS found in all of them below.
a. Lymph nodes
b. liver
c. spleen
d. endoneurium
e. uterus
12. The functions of type IV collagen are all of the following except: D. Type IV collagen is not an insulator
a. To provide support to the ECM
b. To act as a scaffold for cell migration
c. To bind to laminin via entactin in the lamina densa
d. To insulate neurons from ap's travelling along nodes of
ranvier.
13. ___aggrecan__________ is a proteoglycan responsible for the 'bubbling' after a subcutaneous tissue injection such as after a Tb test.
14. The following characteristics of the fibronectin receptor are true except:D. Fibronectin receptor binds to integrin. Integrin then binds to actin.
a. It contains disulfide bonds
b. It functions to bind extracellular moieties to the intracellular cytoskeleton
c. It binds to Integrin
d. It binds to Actin
15. All of the following steps of collagen synthesis occur intracellularly except: B. hydroxyhistidine is not a component in collagen synthesis. It should be “glycosylation of specific hydroxylysine”…
a. hydroxylation of proline and lysine
b. glycosolation of specific hydroxyhistidine
c. procollagen formation
d. addition of carbohydrates
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
16. The following display a 67nm periocity except: Type IV
a. Type I collagen
b. Type II collagen
c. Type III collagen
d. Type IV collagen
17. Marfan syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: C. The defect is in fibrillin
a. It is associated with an increased risk of aortic rupture
b. It is a genetic disorder of a defect on chromosome 15
c. The defect results in poorly formed elastin
d. The defect results in poorly formed fibrillin
e. The defect results in poorly formed elastic fibers.
18. All of the following are primary mediators of an anaphylactic shock released by mast cells except: D
a. histamine
b. neutral proteases
c. aryl sulfatase
d. bradykinin
e. all of the above are primary mediators.
19. All of the following cells are transient in connective tissue except: D. Mast cells.
a. Macrophages
b. Basophils
c. Monocytes
d. Mast cells
e. neutrophils
20. Multilocular fat carries out all the following functions except: B. Multilocular fat does not have RER.
a. To increase heat production
b. To synthesize specific thermogenic proteins in the RER
c. To store triglyceride
d. To respond to hormone sensitive lipase
e. Brown fat carries out all the above functions
21. Connective tissue proper includes all the following categories except: E. This falls under embryonic connective tissue.
a. Loose areolar connective tissue
b. Dense irregular connective tissue
c. Reticular tissue
d. Adipose tissue
e. Mucous connective tissue
22. All of the following are true of a patient with hypercellular obesity except. B.
a. The patient has an overabundance of adipocytes
b. The patient has a defect in the leptin hormone
c. The patient has more severe obesity than another patient with hypertrophic obesity
d. All of the above are true.
23. All of the following are functions of connective tissue except: E. This is a function of the immune system (macrophages specifically)
a. to provide structural support
b. to serve as a medium for exchange
c. To aid in the defense and protection of the body
d. to form a site for the storage of fat
e. To phagocytose foreign particles and increase antigen presentation to the lymph system
24. The following are categories of glycosaminoglycans except: D. Laminin
a. hyaluronic acid
b. keratan sulfate
c. Dermatan sulfate
d. Laminin
e. Heparin
25. (T/F) The two amino sugars found in glycosaminoglycans are N-acetylglucosamine of N-acetylgalactosamine. T
26. The following are true statements about epithelia except: D.
a. Epithelia are avascular
b. Epithelial cells receive nourishment through diffusion of molecules through the basal lamina
c. Epithelia is classified by shape and number of cells.
d. All of the above are true.
e. None of the above are true.
27. Simple squamous epithelium can be found in all the following except: D. This would be connective tissue. SS epithelium is on pleural linings, lumens, and the peritoneum.
a. the lumen of the aorta
b. the parietal pleura
c. the peritoneum
d. the fibrous pericardium
e. it can be found in all the above.
28. The following are true about a tight junction except:C. It does not allow any movement
a. it is also referred to as the zonula occludens
b. it is found around the entire apical perimeter
c. it alows movement of certain molecules into the intercellular space.
d. it is analagous to the fascia occludens
e. all the above are true
29. The following are true about the zonula adherens except:
a. it is also called the intermediate junction
b. it is also called the belt desmosome
c. it is found around the entire perimeter of an epithelial cell
d. It includes a proteoglycan called E-cadherin
e. It is analagous to components in the intercalated disks of cardiac muscle.
30. The following are true about desmosomes except: D.
a. it is characterized by desmoplakins
b. It includes transmembrane linker glycoproteins
c. tonofilaments loop in and out of a plaque, which constructs it
d. all of the above are true
e. all of the above are false about desmosomes.
31. All of the following are true about gap junctions except: C. Connexins can open and close in response to conditions.
a. Their function is to couple cells metabolically and electrically.
b. Channels are known as connexins
c. Connexins are fixed in shape and function
d. Connexins are precisely aligned
e. Connexins transport molecules between 1200-2000 daltons.
32. All of the following are true about the basal lamina except: A. It is only visible in EM
a. It is visible at 20X light microscope
b. It is composed of Type IV collagen
c. It appears banded at 67 nm
d. It has two zones, lamina lucida and lamina densa
e. The basal lamina and reticular lamina make the basement membrane
33. The following are true of microvilli except. E.
a. they increase surface area
b. a glycocalyx is present on their surface
c. They contain actin filaments
d. If they are long, they are called stereocilia
e. all of the above are correct.
34. All of the following regarding cilia are correct except: C. It is Dynein ATPase.
a. They are 5-10 nm in length
b. Their axoneme is composed of a 9+2 configuration
c. kinein ATPase fuels active movement of cilia
d. Nexin maintains the shape of cilia
e. ATP is required for movement of cilia
35. (T/F) An exocrine gland secretes into a hair follicle. T.
36. (T/F) A paracrine gland secretes into a duct. F. Into an extracellular space.
37. (T/F) One multicellular gland cannot secrete more than one substance. False
38. All of the following are true statements except: D.
a. Mucus is viscous and protects and lubricates surfaces.
b. Serous secretions are watery and rich in enzymes
c. mixed secretions contain mucus and serous secretions
d. Mixed secretion can only happen through holocrine secreation
e. all of the above are false statements
39. Which of the following should be a differential diagnosis of a male patient with sterility, chronic sinusitis, chronic respiratory distress, and sinus inversus of the viscera? B.
a. exhaustion
b. Kartegener’s syndrome
c. Marfan syndrome
d. Erythrokeratodermia variabilis
e. Acute lymhoblastic leukemia
40. Which of the following statements of glands is true? D.
a. Exocrine glands lack ducts
b. Simple glands have ducts that branch
c. Endocrine glands secrete into ducts
d. Serous secretions are watery
e. Holocrine glands release contents by exocytosis
41. Which of the following statements of epithelia is not true? E. They have a small amount of intercellular substance.
a. They are polarized
b. They are avascular
c. They are separated from underlying connective tissue by a basal lamina
d. They line the lumen of blood vessels
e. They contain a large amount of intercellular substance.\
42. Which of the following statements about stratified squamous epithelium is not true? B.
a. The surface layer of cells may be keratinized
b. The cells in the most superficial layer are cuboidal
c. It is supported by a basal lamina
d. Its cells possess desmosomes
43. Cells in exocrine glands use all of the following methods of secretion except: B. Paracrine is secretion into extracellular space.
a. Apocrine
b. Paracrine
c. Merocrine
d. Holocrine
e. All of the above
Match the description with the corresponding letter: (44-47)
f. Microvilli.
g. Desmosomes
h. Terminal web
i. Zonula occludens
44. contains a core of actin filaments. F
45. is associated with keratin tonofilaments. G
46. prevents movement of materials from the lumen into the intercellular space. I
47. a zone in the apical cytoplasm containing more than one type of filament.. H
48. Which of the following statements regarding osteoclasts is true? C.
a. They are enucleated cells
b. They produce collagen
c. They occupy howships lacunae
d. They are derived from osteoprogenitor cells
49. Which of the following statements about the periosteum is false? E. It is an osteoprogenitor layer.
a. It contains two zones, the cellular and fibrous layers.
b. It is noncalcified connective tissue
c. It is breached during endochondral bone formation
d. It distributes blood vessels to bone
e. It has an osteogenic layer
50. All of the following are derived from osteoprogenitor origin except: E. Osteoclasts and chondrocytes are not of osteoprogenitor origin.
a. Osteoclasts
b. Osteoblasts
c. Osteocytes
d. Chondrocytes
e. More than one of the above is not of osteoprogenitor origin.
51. All of the following can be found in the matrix of hyaline cartilage except: D. Chondrocytes, by definition, are not in the matrix.
a. Proteoglycan aggregates
b. Chondronectin
c. Type II collagen
d. Chondrocytes
e. All of the above can be found in hyaline cartilage
52. The cells responsible for secreting matrix into forming cartilage are: A.
a. Chondroblasts
b. Chondrocytes
c. Chondrogenic cells in perichondrium
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
53. T/F: Interstitial growth results from cell division of preexisting chondrocytes. T.
54. T/F: Appositional growth results from differentiation of chondrogenic cells in the perichondrium. T.
55. T/F: Appositional growth results in the formation of chondrocytes. T.
56. T/F: Appostional growth results in the formation of chondroblasts. T.
57. T/F: Osteoprogenitor cells differentiate into osteoblasts at low oxygen tension. F. Osteoprogenitor cells become chondrogenic under low oxygen.
58. T/F: Osteoblasts have a well-developed ER and golgi complex when active. T.
59. T/F: Osteocytes communicate via gap junctions. T.
60. T/F: Osteocytes are nourished by nutrients and metabolites in the canaliculi. T.
61. All of the following are true of osteoclasts except: C.
a. Their cytoplasm is acidophilic
b. They are located in howship’s lacunae
c. They have parathyroid hormone receptors
d. They have calcitonin receptors
e. They excrete acid into the bony matrix.
62. All of the following are true of osteoblasts except: C.
a. They make type I collagen
b. They have parathyroid hormone receptors
c. They have calcitonin receptors
d. They secrete alkaline phosphatase
e. They secrete osteocalcin
63-66. Fill in the blank:
Osteoclasts are large, motile, multinucleated cells that serve to break down existing bone. Upon activation, one can traditionally identify 4 zones. The ___63. Ruffled____ border is the site at which active bone resorption is occurring. The __64. Clear____ zone is what surrounds this site of active resorption. The vesicular zone secretes metalloproteinases such as ___65. Collagenase________ into the matrix. The basal zone is the portion of the cell that contains the _____66. Organelles__________.
67. All of the following are true of primary bone except: TYPO: Sorry—All of these are true.
a. It has a low mineral content
b. It is the first bone produced in fetal development
c. It has many osteocytes and large collagen bundles
d. It is remodeled
e. It is found in adults
68. All of the following are true of Haversian systems except: E
a. they run parallel to the long axis of the diaphysis
b. they carry blood vessels, nerves, and loose connective tissue
c. They are surrounded often by a cementing substance
d. They are interconnected by volkmann’s canals
e. All of the above are true.
69. (T/F) Interstitial lamellae are irregularly shaped lamellae located between Howship’s lacunae. F. Interstitial lamellae are found between haversian systems.
70. (T/F): Outer circumferential lamellae are located at the external surface of the diaphysis. T.
71. (T/F): Inner circumferential lamellae are located at the internal surfaces of the diaphysis. T.
72. Which of the following is not an event of intramembranous bone formation: F.
a. Mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts
b. osteoblasts begin secreting osteoid
c. osteoblasts are trapped in their own matrix.
d. The periosteum and endosteum develop from portionso fthe mesenchymal layer
e. Mesenchymal cells divide to make osteoprogenitor cells within the periosteum.
f. The periosteum ossifys.
73. Endochondral bone formation is the process by which: E. A and D are correct, maybe C.
a. long bones are formed
b. spongy bone is formed
c. Ron Jeremy makes a living
d. hyaline cartilage becomes a model for the bone to develop
e. more than one of the above is correct
74. Arrange the events of endochondral bone formation in sequence: C.
1. Chondrocytes within the core of the cartilaginous model hypertrophy
2. Osteoblasts elaborate the subperiosteal bone collar
3. vascularization of the perichondrium occurs
4. The bone collar becomes thicker and elongates toward the epiphysis.
5. Osteoclasts create perforations in the bone which permit a periostel bud to enter spaces in the cartilaginous model.
A. 1,3,4,5,2.
B. 1,2,3,4,5
C. 3,2, 1, 4, 5
D. 5,3,2, 1, 4
75. The following are zones of epiphyseal plates except: E. This is a zone of osteoclast activity.
a. zone of reserve
b. zone of proliferation
c. zone of hypertrophy and maturation
d. zone of calcification
e. clear zone
76. (T/F) The healed site of a long bone fracture is stronger than before it was broken. T.
77. Which of the following statements regarding bone is not true? E.
a. bone matrix contains Type I collagen
b. Sharpey’s fibers attach the periosteum to bone
c. Haversian canals carry the neurovascular bundle
d. Bone growth occurs via interstitial growth in the skull
e. Bone resorption reverses osteoporosis.
78. All of the following are connective tissue investments of muscle except: D.
a. epimysium
b. perimysium
c. endomysium
d. dense regular connective tissue
e. elastin
79. Which of the following types of muscle fibers can be found in a single muscle? E. Muscles can contain one, two, or all 3 of the fibers.
a. red
b. white
c. intermediate
d. all of the above
e. more than one of the above
80. The following are properly associated except: D.
a. I bands: light stain
b. A bands: dark stain
c. 2010: rocks
d. Z band: T tubules
e. Myosin: Titin
81. The function of a sarcomere is to: B.
a. sequester Calcium
b. contraction of a muscle
c. releasing calcium
d. secreting Ach
e. secreting Acetylcholinesterase
82. All of the following are functions of the sarcoplasmic reticulum except: D.
a. Storage/Release of Calcium
b. encircle myofibrils
c. forms the terminal cisternae
d. all of the above are functions of the SR
e. none of the above are functions of the SR
83. The regenerative cells of muscle tissue are: B.
a. myofibrils
b. satellite cells
c. myomeres
d. Schwann cells
e. H cells
84. Thin filaments are composed of all the following except: E.
a. F-actin
b. Tropomyosin
c. Troponin
d. Nebulin
e. all of the above are components of a thin filament
85. Thick filaments are composed of all the following except: B. Myomesin links more than one thick filament together.
a. myosin
b. myomesin
c. titin
d. C protein
e. all the above are components of thick filaments
86. Arrange the following events of muscle contraction in order: A.
1. The bond between myosin and actin is broken when ATP attaches to the S1 fragment.
2. The release of ADP causes a shift in myosin, so the thin filament is pulled toward the sarcomere center.
3. The conformation of the S1 is altered by the release of inorganic phosphate and the strength between actin and myosin is increased.
4. ATP hydrolysis results in the formation of a weak bond between S1 and the active site of myosin
a. 3,2,1,4
b. 3,1,2,4
c. 4,1,2,3
d. 4,2,1,3
e. 4,1,3,2
87. Which of the following elements binds calcium? C.
a. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
b. Tropomyosin
c. Troponin
d. Active sites on actin
88. Each smooth muscle cell. C.
a. has triads associated with contraction
b. has diads associated with its contraction
c. possesses a single, centrally localized nucleul
d. is characterized by the absence of sarcolemmal vesicles
89. Thick filaments are anchored to Z disks by: C.
a. C protein
b. nebulin
c. titin
d. myomesin
e. Alpha-actinin
90. Neural crest cells give rise to which of the following? C.
a. dorsal horns of spinal cord
b. adrenal cortex
c. sympathetic ganglia
d. preganglionic autonomic nerves
91. Somata possess which of the following structures? E.
a. microtubules
b. neurofilaments
c. nissl bodies
d. mitochondria
e. all of the above
92. Which of the following statements aobut the perineurium is false? C.
a. It is a fascia surroundin g many nerve fibers
b. It is composed of cells connected with tight junctions
c. It is composed of cells connected with gap junctions
d. It is composed of cells joined by zonulae occludentes.
93. Name the cell responsible for myelination in the PNS:____B_________
a. astrocytes
b. Schwann cells
c. oligodendrocytes
d. microglia
e. ependymal
94. Name the cell responsible for myelination in the CNS:__C_______
a. astrocytes
b. Schwann cells
c. oligodendrocytes
d. microglia
e. ependymal
95. Which one of the following is not properly associated: E. Protoplasmic astrocytes have low GFAP levels.
a. protoplasmic astrocytes: gray matter
b. fibrous astrocytes: white matter
c. protoplasmic astrocytes: blood brain barrier
d. fibrous astrocytes: high GFAP
e. protoplasmic astrocytes: high GFAP
96. Which of the following is not true of oligodendrocytes:D. They can myelinate multiple axons.
a. They exist symbiotically with neurons
b. They are located in both gray and white matter
c. They have only a few, short processes
d. They produce myelin for only one axon
e. They are necessary for survival of the neuron
97. Which of the following is true of microglia: E. C and D are both correct.
a. they are of mesenchymal origin
b. they are derived from neural crest cells
c. they are derived from bone marrow
d. They are phagocytic
e. More than one of the above is true
98. Regarding neurotransmitters, which of the following is not properly associated: E. Aspartate is excitatory
a. Acetyl Choline: Myoneural junctions
b. Norepinephrine: Postganglionic sympathetic synapses
c. GABA: Huntington’s chorea
d. Dopamine: Parkinson’s disease
e. Aspartate: Inhibitory
99. The most common type of primary brain tumor is: A.
a. astrocytoma
b. glioblastoma
c. oligodendroglioma
d. meningioma
e. lymphoma
100. Which of the following is correct regarding CSF: B.
a. choroid plexus:secretion::ependymal cells:absorption
b. choroid plexus:secretion::arachnoid villi: absorption
c. CSF contains high levels of protein for energy
d. CSF has low sodium, potassium, and chloride levels
e. It is transported to the lumbosacral region for resorption.