Post by Lauren on Sept 20, 2006 0:53:41 GMT -5
1. Which one of the following is not a form of post-transcriptional gene regulation? A.
a. Alternative splicing of exons and introns
b. Alternative usage of stop codons and polyadenylation signals
c. Small non-coding RNAs
d. Alternative use of translation initiation site (ATG)
e. All of the above are forms of post-transcriptional gene regulation
2. Which of the following statements about Induction and organ formation is false? E. It us usually epithelial-mesencyme interactions
a. One group of cells cause another set of cells to change their differentiation fate
b. The inducer cells produce a signal which changes another set of tissues, the responder.
c. The capacity of the responder to respond is called competence.
d. Competence requires activation of the responding tissue by a competence factor.
e. This interaction most commonly involves endothelial-mesenchyme interactions.
3. Which of the following statements about paracrine signaling is false? E.
a. It involves communication between two or more cells without travel in vessels
b. This communication involves communication via secreted proteins which diffuse over a short distance
c. This communication includes GDFs
d. This type of communication involves Fibroblast growth factor, WNT, hedgehog, and TGF-beta families
e. This communication is not necessary for organ induction to occur.
4. Which of the following is not a way that juxtacrine signaling may occur? E
a. A membrane-bound protein on one cell binds with a receptor on an adjacent cell
b. Ligands in the ECM secreted by one cell interact with receptors on neighboring cells
c. Gap junctions
d. Notch pathway
e. All of the above are ways that juxtacrine signaling may occur
5. Which of the following is not a way that paracrine signaling may occur? D
a. A ligand binds to a receptor to activate a tyrosine kinase receptor on a cell nearby
b. A ligand activates a receptor which includes extracellular, transmembrane, and cytoplasmic domains.
c. The Bone morphogenetic proteins induce bone formation
d. The fibronectin receptor binds to integrin on an epithelial cell.
e. A ligand causes activation of an intracellular kinase, resulting in a signal cascade.
6. Which of the following is not a component of a typical gene? C.
a. A promoter region
b. Transcription initiation site
c. Inducer
d. Translation termination codon
e. 3’ untranslated region
7. Which of the following is not true of Primordial germ cells in the human? B
a. They are formed in the epiblast during the second week of development.
b. They appear in the yolk sac wall at the 5th week of development. (wrong because they appear in epiblast at 2nd week of development)
c. It takes approximately one week to migrate to the male or female gonad.
d. These cells undergo meiosis and cytodifferentiation
e. These cells undergo mitosis during their migration.
8. Which of the following is not true of Mitotic Germ Cells?D.
a. These include Oogonia and Spermatogonia
b. Their numbers are decreased through apoptosis
c. These are the progenitor germ cells of future gametes
d. These cells have 23 + (X or Y) chromosomes (should be 22 autosomes, and a sex chromosome)
e. All of the above are true of mitotic germ cells
9. Which of the following is an example of genomic imprinting? C.
a. Triple X syndrome and Turner syndrome
b. Trisomy 13 and Trisomy 21
c. Angelmann Syndrome and Prader-Willi syndrome
d. Trisomy 18 and cri-du-chat syndrome
e. None of the above are examples of genomic imprinting
10. Which of the following is not true of Meiosis? E. 23 individual chromosomes
a. Meiosis involves 2 cell divisions
b. Meiosis paroduces 4 cells from 1 parental cell
c. Meiosis reduces the chromosome number from diploid to haploid
d. Meiosis is preceded by chromosome duplication
e. Each of the daughter cells has 23 pairs of chromosomes
11. Which of the following is not true of genetic diversity due to meiosis? E. A and D are false.
a. Crossing over leads to genetic recombination
b. If there was not a crossing over event, meiosis could only produce 4 types of gametes
c. A segment of one chromatid switches places with the equivalent segment of its nonsister homologue
d. Nonsister chromatids break in two at the same or different spots
e. More than one of the above is not true of meiosis
12. A primary oocyte found in the ovary of a 4-year old girl is in which stage of development? B
a. Metaphase of Meiosis I
b. Prophase of Meiosis I
c. Anaphase of Meiosis I
d. Prophase of Meiosis II
e. Metaphase of Meiosis II
f. Oocytes are not founding a 4-year old’s ovaries.
13. A primary oocyte found in the ovary of a menstruating 30-year old female is in which phase of development? E.
a. Metaphase of Meiosis II
b. It has completed Meiosis II and formed a second polar body
c. Prophase of Meiosis II
d. It has become a polar body
e. It could be found as more than one of the above
14. Which of the following is in the proper order of development?C
a. Spermatid-Spermatogonia-Spermatocytes-Spermatozoa
b. Spermatogonia-Spermatid-Sermatocytes-Spermatozoa
c. Spermatogonia-Spermatocytes-Spermatid-Spermatozoa
d. Spermatocytes-Spermatogonia-Spermatocytes-Spermatozoa
e. None of the above are in the proper order of development
15. Which of the following describes the location that germ cells are found in a 2-day old male infant? C
a. Germ cells are not found in an infant
b. In the sex cords of the testis which have not yet descended through the inguinal canals.
c. In the sex cords of the testis which have descended through the inguinal canals.
d. In the seminiferous tubules in the gonads.
e. None of the above are locations where one could find germ cells.
16. Which of the following cell types support the developing germ cells in the male? A
a. Sertoli cells
b. Leydig cells
c. Type B Spermatogonia
d. Type A Spermatogonia
e. Residual Bodies
17. Which of the following accurately describes the role of hormones on Sperm production? D
a. LH binds to Leydig cells to produce testosterone which binds to Sertoli cells.
b. FSH binds directly to Sertoli cells to stimulate testicular production of intracellular androgen receptor proteins
c. LH binds to Sertoli cells to produce testosterone which binds to Leydig cells.
d. Both A and B are correct
e. Both B and C are correct.
18. Which of the following cells is not included in the description “primordial follicle”? E. C and D are not in the primordial follicle
a. The primary oocyte
b. The flat epithelial cell
c. The cuboidal follicular cell
d. The polar bodies
e. More than one of the above is not included in the primordial follicle
19. Which of the following substances maintains a suspended development of the primary oocyte? C
a. Progesterone
b. Estrogen
c. OMI
d. LH
e. FSH
20. Which of the following is not a stage that oocytes pass through during maturation? E
a. Preantral
b. Antral
c. Pre-ovulatory
d. Graafian
e. All of the above are stages that oocytes pass through during maturation
21. Which of the following cells is not included in the primary follicle? C
a. The cuboidal follicular cell
b. The primary oocyte
c. The granulosa cells
d. All of the above are in the primary follicle
e. More than one of the choices A-C is not in the primary follicle
22. The development of which of the following signals the classification of the secondary oocyte? C
a. The zona pellucida
b. The granulose
c. The antrum
d. The cumulus oophorus
e. More than one of the above
23. Which of the following is the proper sequence of events of ovulation? A. (Should be 1,3,4,5,2,6,7,8… sorry typo)
1. primary follicle becomes secondary follicle
2. The oocyte enters Meiosis II
3. A surge in LH induces the growth phase
4. The oocyte completes Meiosis I
5. The cell forms two daughter cells, including a first polar body
6. The cell is arrested in Metaphase
7. 3-hour time lapse
8. ovulation
a. 1,3,4,5,2,6,8,7
b. 3,4,6,7,5,2,8,1
c. 2,4,6,7,8,1,3,5
d. 4,7,8,6,5,2,1,3
e. 1,3,7,5,2,6,4,8
24. How long does an unfertilized oocyte survive in the ampulla after ovulation? b
a. 12 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 36 hours
d. 72 hours
e. until menstruation
25. Pair the accurate triggers for the development through Meiosis I and Meiosis II in the oocyte. B
1. completion of Meiosis I
2. beginning of Meiosis II
3. Surge of LH
4. Spontaneous
5. Fertilization
a. 1 and 3, 2 and 5
b. 1 and 3, 2 and 4
c. 1 and 5, 2 and 3
d. 1 and 4, 2 and 3
e. 1 and 5, 2 and 4
26. Which of the following is not an effect of LH on the oocyte? E. Estrogen does this
a. Elevate maturation promoting factor
b. Completion of meiosis I and initiation of meiosis II
c. Stimulation of progesterone production by follicular stroma
d. Follicular rupture and ovulation
e. Maturation of follicular (granulosa cells)
27. Which of the following is not an effect of estrogen on the oocyte? D. LH does this
a. Cause uterine endometrium to enter proliferative phase
b. Thinning of cervical mucous
c. Stimulate secretion of LH
d. Activate collagenase
e. More than one of the above is not an effect of estrogen.
28. Which of the following is responsible for progesterone production during pregnancy? D. B and D produce progesterone
a. Corpus albicans
b. Corpus luteum
c. Human chorionic gonadotropin
d. Trophoblast of placenta
e. More than one of the above
29. Which of the following is not true of capacitation? E
a. It occurs mostly in the uterine tube
b. One of the events is removal of the glycoprotein coat
c. One of the events is removal of seminal plasma proteins from the sperm plasma membrane
d. Sperm must undergo this reaction for fertilization to occur
e. All of the above are true about capacitation
30. Which of the following is not true of the acrosome reaction? D. It is necessary to penetrate Zona pellucida
a. It is induced after binding to the zona pellucida
b. It begins with the release of trypsin-like enzymes
c. It is necessary for fertilization to occur
d. It is necessary to penetrate the corona radiate
e. More than one of the above is not true
31. Which of the following does not occur immediately following entry of a sperm into an oocyte? E
a. The oocyte completes meiosis II
b. A cortical reaction
c. A zone reaction
d. Inactivation of sperm receptors on egg
e. Paracrine signaling from the blastocyst
32. A female patient in the late first trimester of pregnancy exhibits hypertension,
girl thingyl bleeding and edema. A conceptus characterized by multiple fluid-filled vesicles and the absence of a fetus is spontaneously aborted a week later. Chromosome analysis reveals a 46, XX karyotype but all of the chromosomes are of paternal origin. Which of the following tissues failed to develop in this conceptus? C. There is no embryo so epiblast did not develop
A. Cytotrophoblast
B. Outer cell mass
C. Epiblast
D. Primary villi
E. Syncytiotrophoblast
33. In which of the following layers of the trophoblast are mitotic bodies found on day 8 of development? E. Cytotrophoblast does not contain mitotic cells, all others do.
a. cytotrophoblast
b. syncytiotrophoblast
c. hypoblast
d. epiblast
e. More than one of the above
34. Which of the following statements is false regarding development of the trophoblast and embryoblast? B.
a. The trophoblast layer differentiates into two layers; one of which maintains the endometrial lining
b. The amniotic cavity is the result of a space formed between the syncytiotrophoblast and the cytotrophoblast
c. The endometrial stroma is invaded by the syncytium, which forms vacuoles known as lacunae
d. The Heuser membrane and the hypoblast form the primitive yolk sac.
35. Beginning with the lacunar spaces in the endometrium, which of the following is the correct sequence of tissues encountered toward the lumen of the uterus at day 12? A.
a. trophoblastic lacunae, syncytiotrophoblast, amniotic cavity, epiblast, hypoblast, exocoelomic cavity, cytotrophoblast, fibrin coagulum, uterine lumen.
b. trophoblastic lacunae, syncytiotrophoblast, cytotrophoblast, amniotic cavity, hypoblast, exocoelomic cavity, hypoblast, fibrin coagulum, uterine lumen.
c. trophoblastic lacunae, syncytiotrophoblast, amniotic cavity, hypoblast, epiblast, cytotrophoblast, exocoelomic cavity, fibrin coagulum, uterine lumen.
d. trophoblastic lacunae, hypoblast, syncytiotrophoblast, cytotrophoblast, epiblast, amniotic cavity, exocoelomic cavity, fibrin coagulum, uterine lumen.
36. Which of the following is the term for the anatomical area in the pelvis or abdomen where an ectopic pregnancy may be found? D
a. uterine tube
b. retrouterine pouch
c. omentum
d. more than one of the above
37. Which of the following classes of genes is primarily involved in the establishment of axes of symmetry (craniocaudal; dorsoventral; and right-left) of the human embryo? C
A. Maternal effect
B. Zygotic
C. Homeobox
D. Segmentation
E. Pair-rule
Match the structure with its description:
A. extraembryonic mesoderm
B. extraembryonic somatopleuric mesoderm
C. extraembryonic splanchnopleric mesoderm
D. extraembryonic coelom
E. placental membrane
38. separates maternal and fetal blood from contact E.
39. Lines the cytotrophoblast and amnion B.
40. Surrounds the yolk sac. C
41. General term for loose connective tissue derived from yolk sac cells. A
42. Another term for chorionic cavity. D
43. Which of the following is not a phase of embryonic development according to Dr. Highison? D
a. morphogenesis
b. growth
c. differentiation
d. organogenesis
44. Which of the following is not a neural crest cell derivative tissue? E
A. melanocytes
b. adrenal medulla
c. Schwann cells
d. glial cells
e. reticulocytes
Match the following structures with their layers in the embryo:
a. ectoderm
b. endoderm
c. mesoderm
45. blood components. C
46. The intestines. B
47. Skin. A
48. Central nervous system. A
49. Connective tissue. C
50. gastrulation. A
Match the substance with what process it controls (may be used once, more than once, or not at all.)
a. FGF8
b. BMP4
c. Brachyury
d. Goosecoid
e. Nodal
51. gastrulation and development of the primitive streak. A
52. ventralizes mesoderm, forms intermediate and lateral plate of mesoderm. B
53. formation of dorsal mesoderm. C
54. lack of this results in caudal dysgenesis. C
55. Organization of head mesoderm. D
56. Over or under-expression of this causes malformation of the head. D
57. Regulate left/right asymmetry during gastrulation. A, E.
58. Which organ reflects most clearly the effects of laterality?C
a. liver
b. heart
c. spleen
d. skin
e. none of the above
59. Which of the following statements regarding development of germ layers is false? D.
a. The epiblast is the source of all three germ layers
b. All three germ layers will give rise to all tissues and organs
c. epiblast cells migrate under primitive streak to form endoblast
d. none of the above are false.
e. all of the above are false
60. Which of the following statements regarding the mesoderm is not true? C
a. The mesoderm differentiates into the axial, intermediate, and paraxial mesoderm
b. Derivatives of the mesoderm, somites, can be used to approximate the age of an embryo.
c. the mesoderm forms the epithelial tube, which runs the length of the embryonic body.
d. The lateral plate mesoderm splits into the somatic and splanchnic mesoderm
e. More than one of the above is not true.
61. Which of the following regarding ectoderm is false? E
a. The ectoderm subdivides into the neuroectoderm and the epidermal covering of the body.
b. Proper development of the ectoderm is dependent upon blockage of BMP4
c. The neuroectoderm forms the future spinal cord and dorsal root ganglia.
d. The neuroectoderm gives rise to cells which migrate into the mesenchyme
e. None of the above statements are false.
62. Which of the following substances has not been shown to cause induction of the neural plate? D
a. FGF
b. BMP4
c. WNT3a
d. homeobox genes
e. SHH
63. Which of the following statements regarding vasculogenesis is false? C. the first blood islands form in the wall of the yolk sac
a. Mesoderm cells form hemangioblasts, which are precursors for vessel and blood cell formation
b. VEGF induces hemangioblasts to form hematopoietic stem cells
c. The first blood islands appear in the intermediate mesoderm
d. HOXB5 upregulates the VEGF receptor FLK1 on mesoderm cells.
64. Which of the following statements regarding angiogenesis is false? B
a. Angiogenesis is mediated by VEGF
b. VEGF induces the notch pathway which specifies venous development
c. Angiogenesis is the process of adding new vasculature to previously formed vessels
d. Sonic hedgehog induces mesenchyme to express VEGF.
65. Which of the following statements regarding hematopoiesis in the fetus is incorrect? B. AGM cells colonize the fetal liver, HSCs from liver then colonize the marrow
a. hematopoietic stem cells arise from the mesoderm surrounding the aorta, known as the aorta-gonad-mesonephros region.
b. AGM cells colonize the marrow, which becomes the major hematopoietic organ of the fetus.
c. Stem cells from the liver will differentiate into blood components
d. A and C are false
e. A-C are all false.
66. Fetal changes in the fifth month of development include all of the following except: D
a. the mother feeling a sensation of the fetus moving
b. a thin fuzz-like hair covering the fetus
c. auscultation of the fetal heartbeat through the gravita abdomen
d. lungs developmentally capable of breathing air.
67. Which of the following components of the placenta produce hCG? B
a. The chorion laeve
b. the chorion frondosum
c. the decidua basalis
d. the decidual parietalis
e. none of the above.
68. Which of the following is not a hormone produced by the placenta? C
a. progesterone
b. hCG
c. estrogen
d. estriol
e. somatomammotropin
69. T/F: The placental membrane has 4 layers up until the 30th week, when it becomes bordered by only 2 layers. F. this happens at the 20th week
70. The primitive umbilical ring contains all of the following except: E
a. the allantois
b. the yolk stalk
c. wharton's jelly
d. two umbilical arteries
e. two umbilical veins
71. Which of the following would not be found in amniotic fluid at term? C
a. fetal somatic cells
b. maternal IgG
c. fetal IgG
d. proteins
e. fetal urine
72. Which of the following is not true regarding parturition? E
a. The first stage ends with a cervical dilation of 10 cm
b. The second stage ends with birth of the fetus
c. The third stage is dependent upon uterine contraction
d. the fourth stage is dependent upon uterine contraction
e. none of the above are false statements regarding parturition
73. Which of the following describes the role of RhoGAM in prevention of erythroblastosis fetalis? C. No one really knows how exactly it works…
a. It binds to maternal IgG
b. It binds to maternal IgD
c. It prevents sensitization of the mother to fetal red blood cells.
d. It binds to Rh+ antigen on fetal red blood cells
e. More than one of the above is true
74. Which of the following substances would not cross the placental membrane in a 25-week gestation female? E
a. heparin
b. staphylococcus aureus
c. IgG
d. estrogen
e. more than one of the above
75. Which of the following denotes a non-viable fetus? E
a. 25-week gestation, weight=600g
b. 20-week gestation, weight=450 g
c. 25-week gestation, anencephalic, weight=750g.
d. 38-week gestation, turner syndrom, weight=3000g.
e. more than one of the above would not be viable